Pastor Reid’s Position Biblically Examined
(Note: For the sake of full disclosure to those reading this paper, I must admit up-front that dealing with the biblical perspective on this issue is my weakest point. I am a layman. I spend eight hours a day with a shovel or rake in my hand, not a Greek NT or some theological tome. I know so little Greek that I would not be able to find a toilet in the Hellenistic world. However, while I may not be able to do the extensive exegesis of a NT scholar, I will attempt to faithfully treat pertinent passages of Scripture, within my humble and limited capabilities.)
Reid’s exposition of his view biblically seems to run to-and-fro throughout the Bible, in one place citing briefly Spurgeon’s interpretation of a parable, then quickly flipping through a dozen or so OT typologies before quoting some of the “universal” passages of the NT, such as John 3:16, and so on (I blame the blog format for this, not Reid). We can see that Shedd, Ryle, Hodge, et al, might hold to this view, but (as stated before) “What saith the Scripture?”
There are legions of Scripture passages which deserve treatment in reference to this subject (which is, I think, the reason why Reid’s blog posts seem a bit scattered in this regard; the biblical data to be considered on this point is massive). I won’t even begin to scratch the surface of much of that which is pertinent and a much lengthier treatment in this regard ought to be undertaken by someone. However, I would like to very briefly survey pertinent Scripture passages, then more closely examine some which, in my limited estimation, could provide “talking-points” for further discussion, as well as potential “tipping-points” for those in disagreement. So, “what saith the Scripture?”
The Scripture says that Jesus died for all people (2 Cor. 5:14-15; 1 Tim. 2:1-6; 4:10; Titus 2:11), for the whole world (John 1:29; 3:16-17; 1 John 2:2; 4:14; Rev. 5:9), for everyone (Isa. 53:6; Heb. 2:9) and that God does not want anyone to perish (1 Tim. 2:4; 2 Pet. 3:9). They also say that Jesus died for some people but not all people (Matt. 1:21; 20:28; 26:28; Rom. 5:12-19), for His sheep (John 10:11, 15, 26-27), for His church (Acts 20:28; Eph. 5:25), for the elect (Rom. 8:32-35), for His people (Matt. 1:21), for His friends (John 15:13), and for all Christians (2 Cor. 5:15; Titus 2:14). How are these statements of Scripture to be understood?
To the atheist, the answer is clear: it is yet another irreconcilable contradiction in the Scripture. To the Arminian, the answer is clear: Christ died for everyone in the same sense, including believers. To the Calvinist, the answer is clear: Christ died only for the elect, and when Scripture says “all” or “world” there is a reason within the context which allows us to limit those statements to
actually mean “all the elect” or a “world of the elect,” etc., since we know not all people are elect.
In the context of this discussion, we reject the atheist’s contention out of hand. We also, I think, reject the Arminian’s contention as logically over-simplified, especially since they reject the related biblical doctrines regarding election, grace and man’s nature. But I have to ask, does the contemporary Calvinist position really do justice to the full weight of the idea that Christ died “to reconcile to himself
all things, whether on earth or in heaven, making peace by the blood of his cross” (Col. 1:20)? (all emphases mine)
Do we, as Calvinists, do justice to the full weight and implication of the statements of 1 Tim. 4:10, which states, “For to this end we toil and strive, because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of all people,
especially of those who believe”? In what sense does our formulation of limited atonement state that Christ is the Savior of all people, especially of those who believe? By contextually limiting “all people” to be “all (kinds of) people?” And what are we to make of the use of the term “especially” regarding “those who believe”? Does our doctrine of limited atonement state that there is a special sense in which Christ is the Savior of those who believe, over against the way in which He is the Savior of all people? This would appear to be the plain sense of the verse, apart from our doctrinal presuppositions.
The same intent appears to be at the heart of 1 John 2:2, “He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.” Is there really contextual warrant here to make the word “our” refer only to “John’s Hebrew audience,” as Owen does? Or is this verse teaching that Christ has propitiated not only the sins of every believer, but every sin ever? Again, this seems to me to be the plainest sense.
A third passage which I think carries great weight in reconciling the “universal passages” with the “particular passages” is 2 Peter 2:1, “But false prophets also arose among the people, just as there will be false teachers among you, who will secretly bring in destructive heresies, even denying the Master who bought them, bringing upon themselves swift destruction.” In what sense has the Master “bought” false teachers who are swiftly destroyed? This is the language of
redemption, but it is used here in reference to those who are obviously non-elect. What are we to make of this?
(Note: I think Owen’s treatment is weakest here (along with those who follow in his exegetical footsteps in this regard), in that he seeks to somehow identify “bought” with “created,” (or at least “anything
but redeemed”) and that the term translated “Master” or “Lord” here cannot mean “Christ,” but merely “God,” finding great significance in this distinction. This, I think, deserves the designation of “hermeneutical gymnastics.”)
Let me say first that I think we, as faithful Christians, are to
believe all of these verses, in tension if we must, until a reconciliation can be made clear. This is what I think Reid is attempting to do. Apart from all of the experiential discussions of hyperCalvinism and the free offer of the Gospel, at heart I think Reid is trying to be utterly faithful to the teaching of Scripture above all else (even Owen’s dearly-held, “logically impeccable” argument for his view of the atonement).
I also think that if the three verses above are given their full face-value, we must admit that the contemporary Reformed consensus doctrine of limited atonement fails the most important test: it isn’t biblical. It denies things which Scripture affirms, such as that Christ, in some sense, bought non-elect false teachers. A Universal Atonement/Particular Redemption view appears to fit quite neatly the language of 1 Tim. 4:10 and 1 John 2:2, without doing violence to the universalistic or particularistic passages of Scripture, but instead seeking to reconcile them all.
Conclusion: Reid’s view is a more biblically faithful attempt at reconciling the Scriptural tension of universalistic and particularistic passages than classical/Wesleyan Arminian or Owen-like Calvinistic attempts.
The Implications
I would like to briefly highlight an aspect of this doctrine of the atonement, so that some of the specific implications of this doctrine are also given some limited treatment. (Note: In discussion with others on these points it seems that the implications of this doctrine are causing the most distress, especially the idea that Christ has died for those in hell. I would be remiss if I didn’t at least make an attempt to briefly deal with such implications. I will call this the “double payment” or “double jeopardy” objection.) I have referred above to the difference between a “singular intention” and a “multiple intentions” theory of the atonement as being a critical distinction in understanding the atonement. I think that Phil. 2:8-11 gives us a view of the highest intent of God in Christ’s atonement: His own glory (
soli Deo Gloria); and the implications of this verse are immensely valuable to our discussion.
“And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name, so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.” (Phil. 2:8-11)
The highest intent of God in Christ’s humbly obedient death on the cross is that His name would be highly exalted above every other name. This death on the cross leads to every knee bowing and every tongue confessing that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father.
Every knee bows and tongue confesses,
even under the earth. You see, in dying on the cross Christ purchases everyone as His possession (He even buys false teachers). He then graciously applies his forgiveness and righteousness to the elect (double imputation and justification leading to sanctification), and justly and righteously applies His wrath to the non-elect, perfectly punishing their sins because He is intimately familiar with the wrath due to each one.
God overcomes
all rebellion and sin, not through “Christ + hell,” but through Christ alone (
solus Christus). His triumph on the cross leads both to the salvation of the elect and the damnation of the wicked.
Christ reconciles all things to God, in that every knee bows and tongue confesses that He is Lord, some in rejoicing and worship and some in fear and dread. The reconciliation of the elect is not in the same sense as the reconciliation of the non-elect, but there is a sense in which all things are reconciled to Him. Unrepentant and unforgiven sinners are no longer rebel atheists and their sinful disregard for God has been crushed and ended.
All sin is utterly defeated at the cross. There is accomplished in Christ’s atonement a reconciliation of all things to God, but Christ applies this reconciliation in accordance with God’s secret, electing plan: the elect receive undeserved forgiveness, experiencing the reconciliation of a child with their Father; the non-elect, unrepentant sinner experiences the reconciliation which exists between a conqueror and the conquered. Every knee bows and every tongue confesses to the glory of God, because of Christ’s cross and nothing else.
(Note: Christ therefore dies in order to establish the free offer of the Gospel to all and every individual, in that Christ has made sacrifice for every sin and has made the offer of reconciliation to everyone. The idea that Christ has died in some sense for the non-elect in hell should not be nearly as troubling upon further consideration. We believe, in accordance with unconditional election, that God
creates the non-elect in order to display His just wrath upon them. That Christ atones for them in order to display this wrath should not give us any more difficulty than the idea that He creates them for such wrath. His glory in wisdom, justice and mercy is most fully displayed in this way. Also, the question might be asked, “Why would Christ die for those already in hell?” This objection not only misunderstands the eternal perspective of God on Christ’s atonement, but even taken on its own assumptions it also begs the equal and opposite question: “Why should Christ die to save those already in heaven?”)
Summary
In Reid’s view of the atonement we find a historically orthodox, systematically coherent, biblically faithful doctrine. The prevailing contemporary Reformed consensus (exemplified by John Owen’s argument) is found to have unbiblical presuppositions leading to unfaithful Scriptural interpretations. May God be glorified to the utmost in our doctrine, as well as our on-going discussions of Him in this and every regard.
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