"The whole counsel of God, concerning all things necessary for his own glory, man's salvation, faith, and life, is either expressly set down in Scripture, or by good and necessary consequence may be deduced from Scripture..." -1647 Westminster Confession of Faith 1:6"The sum total of God's revelation concerning all things essential to His own glory, and to the salvation and faith and life of men, is either explicitly set down or implicitly contained in the Holy Scripture." -1689 2nd London Baptist Confession of Faith 1:6There have been a few misologists along the way who have criticized the inclusion of the "implication" or "consequence" clauses in the WCF and 2LBCF (quoted above). An example could be found
here, in a sermon by Don Fortner.
In his criticism of the quoted clauses Pastor Fortner states, "If I cannot show you where a thing is stated in Holy Scripture, I have no right to believe it, preach it, or compel you to believe it." Of course, this sentence is nowhere stated in Holy Scripture, but is something which Pastor Fortner deduced by implication (which I would assume he thought was of good, possibly even necessary, consequence) from the statements of Rev. 22:18-19, 2 Tim. 3:16, etc. The irony of the logical gyrations of those who are opposed to logic always makes for good entertainment.
These sorts of statements sound pious at first, because they propose a "high view of Scripture," especially in contrast to "extra-biblical statements," such as creeds, confessions, sermons... pretty much everything else. However, they belie a certain naivete about the actual process of the interpretation of Scripture, which then extends itself into a denial of "good and necessary" things. Like logic, a necessary part of interpretation.
The WCF speaks of deduction by good and necessary consequence from the expressions of Scripture and the 2LBCF speaks of the explicit and implicit statements of Scripture. (I'm going to stipulate that the various terminology used in the two confessions have the same concept at heart here.) What are we to make of these statements?
I think the authors may have meant by the phrase "good and necessary consequence" the simple distinction between the truth of the premises taken from Scripture ("good" interpretation) and the validity (or inductive strength) of the implication ("necessary" inference). However, I may be wrong on this point and would be glad to hear other perspectives on the matter.
If we have a conclusion of a valid argument deduced from true premises taken from the expressions of Scripture, then we can clearly say that this implication is true. Where we run into problems is with invalid (or inductively weak) argument forms or wrong interpretations giving untrue premises. Or the common practice of waving our magic "good and necessary consequence" wand to produce any doctrine which we like or which our favorite Puritan liked, apart from any explicit Scriptural premises or clear argumentation of any kind. In those cases we wind up with doctrines which certain people think are "good," but which are by no means demonstrably "necessary."
Deducing doctrines out of "good and necessary consequence" involves familiarity with valid logical forms (such as modus tollens, modus ponens, etc.) and with the principles of biblical exegesis, so that we can obtain true premises and make valid inferences. Also, a good external check on this process is to use the
analogy of faith to determine if a conclusion contradicts a clear, explicit, multiply-attested doctrine of Scripture (i.e. a doctrine with a "strong analogy of faith.")
Some might then propose that deductions of "good and necessary consequence" ought to be placed on a different level than the explicit statements of Scripture with regards to reliability, since these deductions use fallible human logic. This objection suffers from the same naivete which I mentioned above regarding the role of logic in biblical interpretation. Rightly interpreted biblical expressions will entail by valid deduction necessary consequences which are no more and no less true than their premises. How can we posit two separate levels or orders of truth? Is a valid conclusion somehow less true than its true premises?
The problem, as I already alluded to, is not with the concept of "good and necessary consequence" as such, but with its common use (or perhaps I should say
abuse) in justifying whatever pet doctrines one prefers without providing any cogent argumentation. Whenever certain traditionally cherished beliefs are called into question in light of a paucity of biblical data in favor of them, the phrase "good and necessary consequence" becomes the escape clause for maintaining one's traditions
contra Scriptura.
Since we already have the WCF and 2LBCF in our purview, let's take an example from Covenant Theology. Covenant Theology proposes a framework of three extra-biblical covenants derived by "good and necessary consequence": the eternal, intra-Trinitarian
Covenant of Redemption, the
Covenant of Works, which is the context for the single
Covenant of Grace with its multiple administrations throughout redemptive history (cf. WCF Ch. 7, 2LBCF Ch. 7).
While my familiarity with the literature on Covenant Theology is by no means exhaustive, I have never seen a valid formal argument with true premises presented for any of the three covenants mentioned above (or even an attempt at such argumentation). If anyone can point me to an example of such an argument I'd be grateful.
Most of the literature which I've seen presupposes the doctrines as part of Covenant Theology's confessional framework and interprets Scripture in such a way as to show that it comports with those presuppositions. However, demonstrating that certain (even many) biblical statements can comport with a presupposition is not enough to establish a presupposition as biblical. It must be "explicitly set down or implicitly contained in the Holy Scripture."
And the fact is that when Scripture speaks of the various biblical covenants (plural), it speaks of them as separate covenants with different administrations, not a single, eternal covenant with multiple administrations (cf. Jer. 31, Heb. 8-9). This explicit language of Scripture carries a far stronger analogy of faith than the presupposition of an eternal Covenant of Grace, especially in absence of any demonstration of the doctrine's basis as a "good and necessary consequence."
(It is, in my humble opinion, a very unfortunate thing that an extra-biblical doctrine with dubious deductive validity (and which contradicts a doctrine with a strong, explicit analogy of faith) holds the position of one of the most basic presuppositions in Covenant Theology's theory of redemptive history. It is also unfortunate that the resultant theory of redemptive history then functions as a systematic hermeneutical framework as well, compressing the full-orbed unity and diversity of the biblical covenants into a single covenant. This results in some instances in an implicit Judaizing effect on Covenant Theologians' views of the sacraments, law, ethics and sanctification, emphasizing Moses to the detriment of Christ and creating a forced conception of equivalent, rather than typological, continuity between the covenants.)
Now calling this much-cherished, confessionally-Reformed tradition of the basic presuppositions of Covenant Theology into question will probably be as warmly received in certain circles as up-ending tables in the temple was by those whose livelihood depended on that income. I won't be responding in this post to all the conceivable objections and counter-arguments to what I've presented. I'll leave that to the comments, if anyone takes an interest in such a discussion.
Let me say briefly, however, that I am not advocating Dispensationalism as an alternative to Covenant Theology. With respect to a framework of redemptive history, I would much prefer a modified form of Covenant Theology, something largely akin to what has been called
New Covenant Theology, or even the formulations of the
1646 1st London Baptist Confession of Faith, which does not adopt any doctrines of "unnecessary consequence" and appropriately emphasizes the New Covenant and the law of Christ, instead of the old covenant and the law of Moses. Also, the various covenants of Scripture all find points of unity and continuity in that they are all covenants initiated by a holy, gracious, eternal God, rather than being ectypes of an archetypal eternal covenant. Christ is
the archetype and his New Covenant is
the eternal covenant.
Finally, I do think it is advisable to keep our theories of redemptive history distinct from our hermeneutical systems in as much as this is possible, so that the text might inform our theory rather than the opposite. In this way we can truly affirm
Semper Reformanda and
solo Christo in the 21st century, in accordance with the eternal Scriptures.